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  1. Sir I need to ask ,why the same company officials who successfully implement the formula of interfere in the internal matters of indian native state for the political,economic and territorial gains ,tried to implement in Britain as a answer of Britain govt which step by step making laws for ending the monopoly of company trade .?(British parliament formulate regulating act and company didn’t retaliate for its interest why)

    • because british government had the formula of loaning money on condition of regulating act and again pitts india act. once they started regulating board of director (warren hasting over estimated tax issue) they fell under parliament. whole eic set up was british. they were no prince rebelling from father. eic was british subject. ojha sir style explanation. you go to your village and show them technology say augmented reality. they will be awe striken and you will be symbol of modernisation. but you cannot do the same in south korea where kids play such games. so new formulae used by eic in india were not playable in Britain. these officers were called nabob and stuff. they were powerless in britain

  2. Sir, can we say the idea of reservation of bill by the governor to the president has its root in 1858 act where GG had to take permission from sos (acting as com) and king (pm) in current context?

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